Scaling FRTB Delta Sensitivities to a 100% Market Move
Summary
The document explains why FRTB delta sensitivities divide a mark-to-market change by the size of the market bump. For a linear cash equity or foreign exchange position, this scaling makes the sensitivity equal to the position’s mark-to-market value, so it can be read as the approximate change under a 100% move in the underlying. A small bump is still useful for nonlinear instruments, where the actual price response to a full move would not be representative.
The explanation also discusses interest-rate sensitivities: the convention measures the change for an upward one-basis-point move and rescales it to a 100% rate move. That large-move interpretation ignores nonlinearity. The note cautions that fixed bump sizes can be unreliable: a one-basis-point change may be lost in numerical noise at very high rates, while other cases may call for a smaller bump. The finite difference should always be divided by the bump actually applied.
Key ideas
- Dividing by the bump size rescales a finite-difference sensitivity to a 100% move.
- For a linear cash equity or FX position, the scaled sensitivity equals its mark-to-market value.
- Small bumps help estimate sensitivities for nonlinear instruments.
- Rate sensitivities use an upward one-basis-point move and rescale the result, which ignores nonlinearity.
- Choose bump sizes with numerical precision in mind and divide by the actual bump used.
Tags
Full text
# FRTB Delta risk sensitivity definitions
# FRTB Delta risk sensitivity definitions
Items 21.19 to 21.24 from FRTB's documentation define delta risk sensitivities for each risk class.
For instance, delta equity risk $s_{k}$ is defined as:
$$ s_{k} = \frac{V_{i}(1.01EQ_{k})-V_{i}(EQ_{k})}{0.01} $$
where:
$k$ is the asset
$EQ_{k}$ is the market value of equity $k$
$V_{i}$ is the market value of the instrument i as a function of the spot price of equity $k$
I think I'm missing the reason for that 0.01 in the denominator. For a position on a stock it would cancel out with the numerator. For non-linear instruments that won't happen, but the meaning of such a measure isn't clear nevertheless.
## Answer by Dimitri Vulis (score 5, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/73428
The goal of dividing by the bump $\delta$ is to rescale the sensitivity (slope) $s$ to a 100% bump. If $i$ is just a linear cash position with notional $n$, $V(nx)=nx$, and $$s=\frac{V((1+\delta)nx)-V(nx)}{\delta}=nx.$$It's more convenient to scale to 100% than to some other arbitrary bump size like 1% or .1%.
It is precisely the goal of rescaling the sensitivities of cash equity or FX positions to equity price and to exchange rates so the sensitivities would equal to the mark to market. It shows the "rise" in mark to market if the underlying price or rate "runs" 100%. It shows how much you'd lose/gain if a long/short position becomes worthless. For a linear cash position, you could as well just bump by 100%, whereas for non-linear ones, you get more meaningful sensitivities bumping only a little, both up and down, and then rescaling.
For sensitivities to interest rate, first, we measure the sensitivity to the interest rates going up 1 basis point, rather than down; and secondly rescale the sensitivity to an unrealistically large interest rate hike of 100%, ignoring any non-linearity. However, when perturbing very high interest rates, such as Argentine peso, that's been around 60-70% per year lately, the 1 bp bump gets lost in numerical noise, so you may instead prefer to bump by more than 1 bp. Conversely, in some rare cases you may prefer to bump by less than 1bp. It's more art than science:), but remember to divide the mtm change by the same bump size that you actually used.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.