Self-Financing Portfolios for Dynamic Delta Hedging
Summary
The document distinguishes a delta-neutral hedge from a self-financing trading strategy in the Black–Scholes setting. A portfolio holding an option and a changing number of shares may cancel local price risk, but changes in the share position create financing flows. Simply setting the stock holding to the option’s delta does not, by itself, specify a self-financing portfolio.
For a practical discrete hedging simulation, the response recommends recalculating the hedge at each step, buying the required stock units, and placing the remaining capital in riskless bonds. It also contrasts a portfolio of options and shares required to earn the risk-free rate with a zero-value hedge that includes bonds. The discussion relies on Black–Scholes assumptions and idealized self-financing mechanics; it does not address transaction costs, discrete rebalancing error in detail, or departures from the model.
Key ideas
- A position that cancels local price risk is not necessarily self-financing.
- Changing stock holdings can require cash flows that must be accounted for in the portfolio.
- A discrete hedge can fund the stock position with the portfolio’s remaining cash or borrowing in bonds.
- The required hedge depends on whether the portfolio is designed to earn the risk-free rate or to have zero value.
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Full text
# Dynamic Delta Hedging And a Self Financing Portfolio
# Dynamic Delta Hedging And a Self Financing Portfolio
Let's assume the usual Black Scholes assumptions hold. My question is related to an answer on this question. There, the weights ($\Delta_t^1$,$\Delta_t^2$) are derived which form a locally risk free portfolio $$X_t =\Delta_t^1 S_t + \Delta_t^2C_t$$ with $$\Delta_t^1 = -\frac{\frac{\partial C}{\partial S} B_t}{C_t - \frac{\partial C} {\partial S}S},\quad \Delta_t^2 =\frac{B_t}{C_t - \frac{\partial C}{\partial S}S}$$ It is emphasized that the strategy $(−∂C∂S, 1)$ is not self financing. I have no doubt about the derivation. Rather, I'm interested to know, in the context of dynamic delta hedging, is it actually valid to set $\Delta_t$ (the amount of the underlying to buy or sell) to $∂C∂S$ instead of $\Delta_t^1$ as shown above? For example, in this paper on page 4 the authors investigate delta hedging strategies by setting $\Delta_t^1$ to $-∂C∂S$ (e.g. $N(d_1)$ for a European call option) and explicitly claim the self financing property. So how would one actutally compute the correct $\Delta_t$ for a delta hedging strategy in a BS world?
## Answer by Daneel Olivaw (score 8, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/34546
### Main references
As explained in my comments, the correct approach to derive the hedging portfolio would be the one described in Gordon's answers to the following questions:
- Derivation of BS PDE problem using Delta hedging
- Black Scholes differential
### The hedging portfolio $C_t-(\partial C/\partial S)S_t$ is not self-financing
We can check that the hedging portfolio $(w_C,w_S)=(1,-\partial C/\partial S)$ is not self-financing. Letting $X_t$ be the portfolio value, we have $-$ dropping time subscripts:
$$ \begin{align} dX & = dC+d(w_SS) \\[6pt] & =dC+\left(Sdw_S+w_SdS+dw_SdS\right) \end{align} $$
The differential of the option is:
$$dC = \frac{\partial C}{\partial t}dt+\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\mu S dt + \frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\sigma SdW+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt$$
We differentiate the weight $w_S$:
$$ \begin{align} dw_S & =\frac{\partial w_S}{\partial t}dt+\frac{\partial w_S}{\partial S}dS+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 w_S}{\partial S^2}dS^2 \\[6pt] & = \frac{\partial w_S}{\partial t}dt + \frac{\partial w_S}{\partial S}\mu Sdt+\frac{\partial w_S}{\partial S}\sigma SdW+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2 w_S}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt \\[6pt] & = -\left(\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S\partial t}dt + \frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\mu Sdt+\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma SdW+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^3C}{\partial S^3}\sigma^2S^2dt\right) \end{align} $$
Hence:
$$ \begin{align} & Sdw_S = -\left(\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S\partial t}Sdt + \frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\mu S^2dt+\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma S^2dW+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^3C}{\partial S^3}\sigma^2S^3dt\right) \\[6pt] & w_SdS = -\left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\mu Sdt+\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\sigma SdW\right) \\[6pt] & dw_SdS = -\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt \end{align} $$
Terms cancel and we obtain:
$$ \begin{align} dX = \frac{\partial C}{\partial t}dt & - \frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S\partial t}Sdt - \frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\mu S^2dt \\[6pt] & - \frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma S^2dW - \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^3C}{\partial S^3}\sigma^2S^3dt - \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt \end{align} $$
Hence we conclude that the self-financing condition $dX = dC+w_SdS$ is not verified: indeed the term in $\partial^2C/\partial S \partial t$ would not appear if it was self-financing, in which case it would read:
$$ \begin{align} dX & = \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t}dt+\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\mu S dt + \frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\sigma SdW+\frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt\right)-\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}\left(\mu Sdt + \sigma SdW \right) \\[6pt] & = \frac{\partial C}{\partial t}dt + \frac{1}{2}\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\sigma^2S^2dt \end{align} $$
### Independence of the pricing PDE and the option weight $w_C$
Note that the confusion around the hedging portfolio is in part due to the fact that the pricing PDE does not depend on the weight of the option $w_C$. As stated in your question, the correct stock weight $w_S$ is:
$$w_S = -w_C\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}$$
Recall that after having cancelled the random terms in $dX_t$ through the choice of $(w_C, w_S)$, we get:
$$ dX_t = w_C \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2S^2 \frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2}\right)dt$$
From the risk-free return constraint, we then obtain $-$ dropping time subscripts:
$$ \begin{align} & dX = rXdt \\[6pt] \Leftrightarrow \quad & w_C \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2S^2\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\right)dt = r\left(w_SS+w_CC \right)dt \\[6pt] \Leftrightarrow \quad & w_C \left(\frac{\partial C}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2S^2\frac{\partial^2C}{\partial S^2}\right) = rw_C \left(-\frac{\partial C}{\partial S}S + C\right) \end{align} $$
Hence the derivative weight $w_C$ can be cancelled.
### A note on hedging portfolios
Note the difference between our approach and the one described in your paper:
- Here, we hold a portfolio of options and stocks and we require this portfolio to return the risk-free rate;
- In your paper, we hold a portfolio made up on an option combined with stocks and riskless bonds and we require its value to be $0$.
$$\underbrace{w_C(t)C_t + w_S(t)S_t = B(t)}_{(1) \, \text{Our hedging portfolio}} \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad \underbrace{C_t + w_S(t)S_t + w_B(t)B(t) = 0}_{(2) \, \text{Your paper's hedging portfolio}}$$
The self-financing condition is different in both cases:
$$ \begin{align} & (1) \; : \; C_tdw_C(t) + dw_C(t)dC_t + S_tdw_S(t) + dw_S(t)dS_t = 0 \\[12pt] & (2) \; : \; S_tdw_S(t) + dw_S(t)dS_t + B_tdw_B(t) + dw_B(t)dB_t = 0 \end{align} $$
## Answer by Mark Joshi (score 5)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/34540
for a self financing portfolio, you have a holding in stocks and one in bonds. If we want to do a hedging simulation, at the start of each step, work out the total value of the hedger's holding (excluding the thing being hedged). Treat this as a cash sum. Buy $N(d_1)$ units of the stock. Use the rest of the money (which may be negative) to buy riskless bonds. Hold this across the step. Repeat.
This is trivially self-financing and you will find that the variance of the net position goes to zero as the step size goes to zero.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.