Sizing a Tail Hedge with a Downside Scenario for Index Puts
Summary
The document explains how to size out-of-the-money index puts in a tail-hedged equity portfolio. The proposed procedure evaluates the portfolio under a specified downside scenario over a one-month horizon. For a long index position, estimate the put’s starting market price and its value in that scenario, then choose the number of puts so the modeled option gain offsets the index loss and option cost. The example uses a deep out-of-the-money put with a later expiration, whose remaining time to maturity and underlying price change in the scenario.
A crucial input is the option’s implied volatility after the market decline. The answer expects volatility to rise in a severe sell-off, but emphasizes that the hedge’s performance depends on this forecast. Interest rates may also change, though the response treats that effect as less central. This is a scenario-based sizing explanation, not a complete trading specification: it does not establish a reliable volatility forecast, account for all pricing risks, or demonstrate realized hedge performance.
Key ideas
- Size the put position by modeling portfolio profit and loss under a specified downside scenario.
- The put’s scenario value depends on the underlying price, remaining maturity, and volatility assumption.
- Choose put quantity so modeled option gains offset the index loss and the premium paid.
- A volatility increase during a sell-off can materially affect the estimated hedge payoff.
- The hedge only performs as modeled to the extent that the scenario assumptions are accurate.
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# Implementation of an option tail-hedging strategy
# Implementation of an option tail-hedging strategy
This question directly refers to the paper "Capital Asset Pricing Mistakes: The Consistent Opportunities in Tail Hedged Equities", http://www.universa.net/Universa_SpitznagelResearch_201501.pdf.
Very briefly put, an index is hedged by simultaneously buying out of the money put options (whose strike price is lower than the price of the index), so that if the index price crashes, the loss is offset by the payoff from the options. I can't exactly understand how the hedging portfolio is constructed. This is detailed in the last paragraph on page 2, which I quote here:
> ...we can safely ascertain that from a risk-reward standpoint, an investment in the S&P 500 Index plus short-term Treasuries could be considered a benchmark for validating a tail hedge argument. Thus, we choose a vanilla 60/40 portfolio -- 60% invested in the S&P 500 and 40% in short-term Treasuries, rebalanced monthly. On the other hand, our tail-hedged portfolio consists of S&P 500 and out-of-the-money put options (specifically one delta which has a strike roughly 30-35% below spot) on the S&P 500. At the beginning of every calendar month, using actual option prices, the number of third-month options (with a maturity from 11 to 12 weeks, and also carrying over the payoff from unexpired options) is determined such that the tail-hedged portfolio breaks even for a down 20% move in the S&P 500 over a month...
So from what I understand, suppose at the beginning of June the index price is $2000$ and a $20\%$ OTM option (Strike price of $1600$) expiring in August end costs, say, $50$. I decide to buy $x$ shares of the index and $y$ options. If the index moves down $20\%$, a potential loss of $400x+50y$ (the cost of buying options is counted as a "loss") must be offset by a gain of $400x+50y$ due to options at June end.
Does this mean that the price of each option should now be updated to $\frac{400x+50y}{y}$? Although this does make sense because the options would become at the money in case of a $20\%$ down move, obviously we can't be sure that this indeed would be the price of each option at the end of June. So do we simulate the price of each option after one month and accordingly decide how many options to buy at the start of the month (say, using Monte Carlo simulation)?
## Answer by user26491 (score 2, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/27567
So, you simulate the pnl one month in advance in a scenario where the Index has moved down by 20%. This is for options which are 30% + out of the money. In your example this would be August expiration and 1400 strike not the 1600 strike.
So if you are long X index shares, as you said then you would lose 400x in one month's time. You buy Y puts to hedge that. You also know how much the puts currently cost (mkt price) say P1, and from that you can figure out the implied volatility they are trading at. You have to guesstimate what the value of the puts would be in the after 1 month scenario call that P2. This basic calculator here will help: http://www.option-price.com/
The days til expiration input will change (to 8weeks), the underlying price will change (from 2000 to 1600) and Crucially the volatility will also change. It is difficult to estimate what it would be in this scenario. Typically you would expect a 20% down move in an index in 1 month to correspond to a sizeable move up in volatility. If you read up a little more on vol that might help you get a handle on how to estimate this. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Volatility_smile You can probably assume the interest rates won't change (although a tanking market might mean a rate cut) So, using your vol forecasting crystal ball you will get a price P2
Your hedged portfolio should have a pnl of 0. So Y*(P2-P1)-400X =0 You already know all of the other variables so you can solve for Y to see how many puts you should buy.
In reality the hedge will only perform as well as your estimate of the vol.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.