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Swaption Pricing and the Error from Using the Wrong Measure

Article Quant Q&A · Author: clarkmaio

Summary

The document sets up a payer swaption payoff using a forward swap rate and an annuity numeraire, then changes from the forward measure to the annuity measure to express the price as an expectation of the positive part of the rate difference. It asks how to quantify the error from estimating that expectation under the forward measure instead of the annuity measure, which would avoid transforming simulated paths.

The text provides the pricing identities and frames both analytical and numerical error estimation as open questions; it gives no derivation, simulation results, or validated approximation. Its main lesson is that changing the pricing measure changes the distribution being averaged, so substituting one expectation for the other needs an explicit correction or an error estimate. The proposed shortcut is presented as an exercise question, not as an established pricing method.

Key ideas

  • Swaption value is expressed using the annuity as numeraire and the associated annuity measure.
  • The payoff depends on the difference between the expiry swap rate and the forward swap rate.
  • The document asks how to measure the error from evaluating the payoff expectation under the forward measure.
  • Avoiding a measure change in simulation does not establish that the two expectations are equal.

Tags

Full text
# Pricing of Swaption by Proxy and Monte Carlo


# Pricing of Swaption by Proxy and Monte Carlo












here's the problem. Suppose you want to compute the price of a Call option on a Swap contract. Let $T$ and $T+S$ the times (in year fraction) where the Swap lives and suppose that the fluxes of the swap are every $6$ months in the times: $$ T=T_0< T_1< \dots < T_N = T+S $$ Let $S_{fwd}$ the swap forward rate: $$ S_{fwd} = S(t; T, T+S) = \frac{B(t, T) - B(t, T+S)}{\sum_{i=1}^M (T_i - T_{i-1})B(t, T_i)} = 2\frac{B(t, T) - B(t, T+S)}{\sum_{i=1}^M B(t, T_i)} $$ while the spot Swap rate is: $$ S_t(s) = \frac{1-B(t, t+s)}{\sum_{i=1}^M (T_i - T_{i-1})B(t, T_i)} $$ where $B(0, T)$ is the usual risk-free discount. The above formula is just the rate which let the swap be fair. ($S_t(s)$ is just $S_{fwd}$ with $t=T$)

Our Call option will use this $S_{fwd}$ as strike and it will exercise $2$ times a year so that the payoff will be:

$$ \sum_i^{2M}\mathbb{E}^{T_i} \left[ \frac{1}{2}B(T, T_i)(S_T(s) - S_{fwd})^+ | \mathcal{F}_T\right] = A(T)(S_T(s) - S{fwd})^+ $$

Now we can compute the expected value. In order to have a simpler term we can (I have to...for the exercise spirit this passage is mandatory) change of measure:

$$ B(0, T)\mathbb{E}^T \left[ A(T)(S_T(s) - S{fwd})^+ \right] = A(0) \mathbb{E}^A \left[(S_T(s) - S_{fwd} )^+ \right]. $$

Finally I come to the main question: At this point the exercise ask me to do some approximations and to estimate the errors. One of this approximations is to compute the integral in the forward measure $T$ (the measure we are using before the change of measure) even if we've changed of numeraire. It seems like a good idea since all the trajectories are available in that measure and, in this way, no Girsanov or Brownian motion corrections is needed.

So that we have the following approximation: $$ A(0) \mathbb{E}^A \left[(S_T(s) - S_{fwd} )^+ \right] = A(0) \mathbb{E}^T \left[(S_T(s) - S_{fwd} )^+ \right] + \epsilon $$

The problem is that I don't understand how to compute the error $\epsilon$ generated by a change of measure: in fact it is a "theoretical" technique and I cannot see how to "write down" the error (the estimate can be done both in the analytic way and in a numerical way: Montecarlo, finite differences...).

Thank you in advice. I know it could seem like confusing...and in fact it is form me a little bit.

Ciao! AM

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.