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Third Strike Derivatives of Squared-Call Prices and Density Positivity

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Wolfy

Summary

The document examines a claim paying the squared amount by which the terminal asset price exceeds a strike, and addresses the sign of the claim’s third derivative with respect to strike. Differentiating its discounted risk-neutral expected payoff three times with the Leibniz rule yields the negative of twice the discounted probability density evaluated at the strike. Since a valid density is nonnegative, the derivative must be nonpositive; the prompt’s claim that it is nonnegative is likely misstated.

A second argument uses a finite-difference portfolio of options at nearby strikes. Its terminal payoff is nonpositive across price regions, so its initial value, and thus the approximated third derivative, must also be nonpositive under the pricing assumptions. The result parallels strike-derivative relationships that recover distribution information from option prices. It assumes differentiability and a suitable risk-neutral density; the finite-difference argument is an approximation whose accuracy depends on the strike spacing.

Key ideas

  • The squared-call price is represented as a discounted integral over terminal prices above the strike.
  • Three strike derivatives give a third derivative equal to negative twice the discounted risk-neutral density at the strike.
  • Nonnegativity of a valid probability density implies that this third derivative is nonpositive.
  • A portfolio across nearby strikes provides a payoff-sign argument for the same conclusion.
  • The finite-difference construction approximates the derivative and depends on the chosen strike spacing.

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Full text
# Joshi, Exercise 2.7 Concepts of Mathematical Finance


# Joshi, Exercise 2.7 Concepts of Mathematical Finance












> Let $D(K)$ pay $(S - K)^2$ if $S > K$, zero otherwise. Show that if $D(K)$ is differentiable function of $K$ then the third derivative w.r.t $K$ is non-negative.

From what the hint in the book, we construct a portfolio and proceed by proving convexity and take the third derivative. I am a bit thrown off by that, I thought we could just take the third derivative of $D(K)$ and simply check to see if it is non-negative.

## Answer by LocalVolatility (score 4, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/37439

The idea is pretty much the same as the one used in the Breeden-Litzenberger result. You'll find many questions related to this here already, see e.g.: Prove that the butterfly condition is always greater than zero.

The current value of the derivative is the discounted expected value.

\begin{equation} D_0 = e^{-r T} \int_K^\infty (x - K)^2 f(x) \mathrm{d}x, \end{equation}

where $f$ is the risk-neutral probability density function of $S_T$. If you now carefully differentiate three times w.r.t. $K$ using the Leibniz rule, you get

\begin{eqnarray} \frac{\partial D_0}{\partial K} & = & -2 e^{-r T} \int_K^\infty (x - K) f(x) \mathrm{d}x,\\ \frac{\partial^2 D_0}{\partial K^2} & = & 2 e^{-r T} \int_K^\infty f(x) \mathrm{d}x\\ \frac{\partial^3 D_0}{\partial K^3} & = & -2 e^{-r T} f(K). \end{eqnarray}

Here, $f(K)$ has to be non-negative to be a valid probability density function and we thus conclude that the third derivative has to be non-positive. Note that this is either a typo in your question or the book.

Another way to obtain this result is to consider the finite difference approximation

\begin{equation} \frac{\partial^3 D_0}{\partial K^3} \approx \frac{1}{\Delta^3} \left( -\frac{1}{2} D_0(K - 2\Delta) + D_0(K - \Delta) - D_0(K + \Delta) + \frac{1}{2} D_0(K + 2 \Delta) \right) \end{equation}

for some step size $\Delta$. The terminal payoff of the portfolio $\Pi$ consisting of the option positions in the numerator is

\begin{eqnarray} \Pi_T \left( S_T \right) & = & -\frac{1}{2} \left( S_T - K + 2 \Delta \right)^2 \mathrm{1} \left\{ S_T > K - 2 \Delta \right\} + \left( S_T - K + \Delta \right)^2 \mathrm{1} \left\{ S_T > K - \Delta \right\}\\ & & - \left( S_T - K - \Delta \right)^2 \mathrm{1} \left\{ S_T > K + \Delta \right\} + \frac{1}{2} \left( S_T - K - 2 \Delta \right)^2 \mathrm{1} \left\{ S_T > K + 2 \Delta \right\}. \end{eqnarray}

We first observe that for any $x \geq 0$, we have

\begin{equation} \Pi_T(K + x) = \Pi_T(K - x). \end{equation}

We can thus restrict ourselves to analyzing the payoff for $S_T \leq K$ in the different intervals.

- For $S_T \leq K - 2 \Delta$, all options expiry out-of-the-money and $\Pi_T = 0$.

- For $K - 2 \Delta < S_T \leq K - \Delta$, only the short position in the strike $K - 2 \Delta$ is in-the-money and our payoff is strictly negative. At $S_T = K - \Delta$ it is $\Pi_T = -\Delta^2 / 2$.

- For $K - \Delta < S_T \leq K$, also the long position in the strike $K - \Delta$ is in-the-money. However, our overall payoff becomes even more negative. At $S_T = K$ it is $\Pi_T = -\Delta^2$.

Using the symmetry around $S_T = K$, we find that our payoff is non-positive everywhere. Consequently, the initial portfolio value has to be non-positive as well and we conclude that $\partial^3 D_0 / \partial K^3 \leq 0$.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.