Using Taylor Expansions to Show Binomial Probability Convergence
Summary
The document addresses a step in showing how a binomial option-pricing model approaches Black-Scholes as the number of time steps grows: finding the limit of the risk-neutral probability product p(1-p). The response starts from the binomial probability formula and expands the exponential terms around small time increments. Keeping leading terms gives an approximation in which p approaches one half as the step count increases, with a correction that shrinks at order 1/n. Substituting this approximation for p and 1-p leads to the stated limit p(1-p) approaching one quarter.
The example illustrates why expansions in powers of small quantities such as 1/n and 1/√n help evaluate limits that are awkward to handle by repeated l’Hôpital differentiation. The answer itself is tentative and does not provide a complete proof or carefully justify all discarded higher-order terms and remainder bounds. Readers should check the expansion and asymptotic error terms when using it in a rigorous convergence argument.
Key ideas
- Taylor expansions can simplify limits involving exponentials of small time increments.
- The binomial risk-neutral probability approaches one half as the number of steps grows.
- The response derives the limit of p(1-p) as one quarter from leading-order terms.
- A rigorous proof should justify omitted higher-order terms and error bounds.
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# Binomial tree convergence tree towards BS equation - Struggle with a limit
# Binomial tree convergence tree towards BS equation - Struggle with a limit
I am trying to prove that the Binomial tree pricing method converges towards the Black and Scholes model, but I am struggling on a specific step.
I don't understand how the limit of p*(1-p) is calculated.
Things I tried:
I calculated $p(1-p)$:
$\frac{2\cdot\exp\left(\frac{rT}{n}+\sigma\sqrt{\frac{T}{n}}\right)-\exp\left(\frac{2rT}{n}\right)-1}{\exp\left(2\sigma\sqrt{\frac{T}{n}}\right)+\exp\left(-2\sigma\sqrt{\frac{T}{n}}\right)-2}$
I used the following formula to express the exponantial:
$\exp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}$
But when replacing the expression of $exp(x)$ in $p(1-p)$, I don't find anything...
I also tried Hospital rule but it looks like an infinite process. In fact I am note sure about the meaning of "expanding the exponential functions in a series"
Thank you for your help!
## Answer by LvM_ (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/75000
I m not sure if this is correct but this is how I would tackle your question.
Given: $ p = \frac{e^{rT/n} - e^{-\sigma \sqrt{T/n}}}{e^{\sigma \sqrt{T/n}} - e^{-\sigma \sqrt{T/n}}}$
In the below taylor expansion, I assume that $x = rT/n$, $\sigma \sqrt{T/n}$, $-\sigma \sqrt{T/n}$
$e^{rT/n}\approx 1 + \frac{rT}{n} +\mathcal{O}((\frac{rT}{n})^2) + \dots$
$e^{\sigma \sqrt{T/n}}\approx 1 + \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} (\frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}})^2 + \dots = 1 + \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n} + \mathcal{O}((\frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}})^3)$ (not sure if correctly used big O notation)
$e^{\sigma \sqrt{T/n}}\approx 1 - \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} (\frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}})^2 + \dots = 1 - \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n} + \mathcal{O}((-\frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}})^3)$
Hence: $p = \frac{1 + \frac{rT}{n} - (1 - \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n})}{1 + \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n} - (1 - \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n})} = \frac{\frac{rT}{n}+ \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} - \frac{1}{2!} \frac{\sigma^2 T}{n}}{2 \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}}} = \frac{\frac{T}{n}(r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)+ \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}} }{2 \frac{\sigma \sqrt{T}}{\sqrt{n}}} $
$p = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{T} }{2 \sigma\sqrt{n}}(r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2) $
$1-p = \frac{1}{2}-\frac{\sqrt{T} }{2 \sigma\sqrt{n}}(r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2) $
Using identity ($a^2-b^2) = (a-b)(a+b)$
$p(1-p) = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{T}{4 \sigma^2n}(r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)^2$
From this point, we can see that as $\lim_{n \to \infty}$$\frac{T}{4 \sigma^2n}(r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)^2 \to 0$
Hence, $p(1-p) \to \frac{1}{4}$
I hope this answered your question. Feel free to ask follow up question if there is something you are unsure about. Best of luck!Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.