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Using the Vasicek Model to Find a Future Bond Price Probability

Article Quant Q&A · Author: sai murari

Summary

The document outlines how to calculate the risk-neutral probability that a zero-coupon bond’s future price exceeds a chosen threshold in the Vasicek short-rate model. It first uses the model’s normal conditional distribution for the short rate, then applies the affine bond-pricing form, in which the bond price is an exponential function of the current short rate. This makes the future bond price lognormally distributed.

To obtain the probability, the method translates the bond-price threshold into a short-rate threshold and standardizes it using the short rate’s mean and standard deviation. A standard normal cumulative distribution function then gives the probability of exceeding the threshold. The post shows how to substitute the specified parameters, valuation time, maturity, and threshold into the formulas, but does not report a final numerical probability. The calculation assumes risk-neutral dynamics and the stated Vasicek model; it does not discuss calibration, alternative rate models, or market pricing adjustments.

Key ideas

  • In the Vasicek model, the short rate at a future time is normally distributed with a model-derived mean and variance.
  • The affine zero-coupon bond price is exponential in the current short rate, making its future value lognormally distributed.
  • A bond-price threshold can be converted into a corresponding short-rate threshold.
  • Standardizing that rate threshold allows the exceedance probability to be computed with the standard normal cumulative distribution function.
  • The example is risk-neutral and model-specific, and it presents a calculation method rather than a final numerical probability.

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Full text
# Vasicek Model, zero coupon bond question


# Vasicek Model, zero coupon bond question












I am trying to solve questions in the Vasicek model. Can anyone help me to solve this question...

In the Vasicek model with parameters $\theta = 0.08$, $k$ = 2.5, $\sigma = 0.2$, assuming to be already under the risk neutral probability and that $r_0 = 0.1$, price a zero coupon bond with nominal $F = 100$ euro and maturity 2 year.

What is the probability that the bond just described is worth more than 96 euros after 1 year?

## Answer by Kevin (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/50553

Let $P(t,T)$ denote the time $t$ price of a zero-coupon bond (with unit face value) maturing at time $T$.

Firstly, recall that for every $s\leq t$, we have \begin{align*} r_t = r_s e^{-\kappa(t-s)}+\theta\left(1-e^{-\kappa(t-s)}\right)+\sigma \int_s^t e^{-\kappa(t-u)}\mathrm{d}W_u. \end{align*} Thus, the short rate $(r_t)$ is normally distributed for every time point $t$ with \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[r_t|\mathcal{F}_s] &= r_se^{-\kappa(t-s)}+\theta\left(1-e^{-\kappa(t-s)}\right), \\ \mathbb{V}\mathrm{ar}[r_t|\mathcal{F}_s] &= \frac{\sigma^2}{2\kappa}\left(1-e^{-2\kappa(t-s)}\right). \end{align*}

Secondly, the Vasicek model is an affine term structure model, i.e. the bond price is given by $P(t,T)=e^{A(t,T)+B(t,T)r_t}$, where \begin{align*} A(t,T) &= \left(\frac{\sigma^2}{2\kappa^2}-\theta\right)\big( T-t-B(t,T)\big)-\frac{\sigma^2}{4\kappa}B(t,T)^2, \\ B(t,T)&=\frac{1}{\kappa}\left(e^{-\kappa(T-t)}-1\right). \end{align*} In particular, the zero-coupon bond price $P(t,T)$ is log-normally distributed for every time point $t$.

We finally compute the (unconditional, risk-neutral) probability that the time $t$ price of a zero-coupon bond is above a constant $c>0$. \begin{align*} \mathbb{Q}[\{P(t,T)>c\}] &= 1- \mathbb{Q}[\{P(t,T)\leq c\}]\\ &= 1- \mathbb{Q}[\{e^{A(t,T)+B(t,T)r_t}\leq c\}] \\ &= 1- \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{r_t\leq \frac{\ln(c)-A(t,T)}{B(t,T)}\right\}\right] \\ &= 1- \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{m_t+ s_tZ\leq \frac{\ln(c)-A(t,T)}{B(t,T)}\right\}\right] \\ &= 1- \mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{Z\leq \frac{\ln(c)-A(t,T)-m_tB(t,T)}{s_tB(t,T)}\right\}\right] \\ &= 1- \Phi\left(\frac{\ln(c)-A(t,T)-m_tB(t,T)}{s_tB(t,T)}\right), \end{align*} where $Z\sim N(0,1)$ and $m_t$ and $s_t^2$ are the unconditional mean and variance of $r_t$. Finally, $\Phi$ is the cumulative distribution function of a standard normally distributed random variable.

In your case, $c=0.96$, $t=1$ and $T=2$. Thus, \begin{align*} m_1 &= r_0e^{-\kappa}+\theta\left(1-e^{-\kappa}\right), \\ s_1 &= \sqrt{\frac{\sigma^2}{2\kappa}\left(1-e^{-2\kappa}\right)}, \\ A(1,2) &= \left(\frac{\sigma^2}{2\kappa^2}-\theta\right)\big( 1-B(1,2)\big)-\frac{\sigma^2}{4\kappa}B(1,2)^2, \\ B(1,2)&=\frac{1}{\kappa}\left(e^{-\kappa}-1\right). \end{align*}

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.