Valuing a Foreign Currency Forward as Two Zero-Coupon Bonds
Summary
This note explains how to represent a foreign-currency forward as a position in a foreign zero-coupon bond and an offsetting position in a domestic zero-coupon bond. If the exchange rate is quoted as domestic currency per unit of foreign currency, the foreign bond’s value is translated into domestic currency, while the domestic bond represents the contracted payment. This gives the forward’s value as the foreign bond value times the spot exchange rate minus the agreed forward payment discounted domestically.
The derivation uses domestic risk-neutral pricing and the martingale property of discounted domestic tradable assets. An addendum derives the needed martingale property for the foreign bond translated at the exchange rate by changing between domestic and foreign risk-neutral measures. The decomposition is useful for valuing the forward and understanding its risk exposures for VaR, but the note does not provide a VaR calculation or discuss a particular risk horizon or model.
Key ideas
- A foreign currency forward can be valued as a foreign zero-coupon bond translated into domestic currency minus a domestic zero-coupon bond position.
- The foreign bond’s domestic value is its price multiplied by the spot exchange rate.
- Domestic risk-neutral pricing and discounted martingales yield the bond decomposition.
- A change of measure establishes the martingale property for the translated foreign bond.
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# How to regard foreign currency forward as foreign and domestic bonds on VaR
# How to regard foreign currency forward as foreign and domestic bonds on VaR
In John Hull's book `Options, Futures and Other Derivatives 9th` `page 507`
We want to calculate the VaR of a `forward contract of a foreign currency` and we should spread forward into two bonds. It's said that
`a forward contract to buy a foreign currency. Suppose the contract matures at time T. It can be regarded as the exchange of a foreign zero-coupon bond maturing at time T for a domestic zero-coupon bond maturing at time T.`
We know that the payment at $T$ is $$Q_T - K$$ it's easy to understand regarding $K$ as a domestic zero-coupon bond maturing at time $T$ with principle $K.$ But how to regard $Q_T$ as the `foreign zero-coupon?`
## Answer by Gordon (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/35771
Let $X_t$ be the exchange rate from one unit foreign currency to units domestic currency. Moreover, let $K$ be the forward rate set at the contract inception time, which is usually prior to the VaR calculation date $t_0=0$. Then the value at time $t$, where $t_0 \le T \le T$, of the forward contract is given by \begin{align*} B_t^d\,\mathbb{E}\left(\frac{X_T-K}{B^d_T} \,\big|\, \mathcal{F}_t\right), \end{align*} where $B_t^d$ is the domestic money-market account value, $P^f(t, T)$ is the value at time $t$ of the foreign zero coupon bond with maturity $T$, and $\mathbb{E}$ is the expectation operator under the domestic risk-neutral measure $\mathbb{Q}^d$.
As $P^f(t, T)X_t$ and $P^d(t, T)$ are values at time $t$ of domestic tradable assets. the processes $\left\{\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}, \, t_0\le t \le T \right\}$ and $\left\{\frac{P^d(t, T)}{B_t^d}, \, t_0\le t \le T \right\}$ are martingales under the domestic risk-neutral measure. Then, the value at $t$ of the forward contract is given by \begin{align*} B_t^d\,\mathbb{E}\left(\frac{X_T-K}{B^d_T} \,\big|\, \mathcal{F}_t\right) &= B_t^d\,\mathbb{E}\left(\left(\frac{P^f(T, T)X_T}{B^d_T} -K\frac{P^d(T, T)}{B^d_T}\right) \,\big|\, \mathcal{F}_t\right)\\ &=P^f(t, T)X_t - K P^d(t, T). \end{align*} That is, the value of the exchange of certain amount of foreign zero-coupon bond with certain amount of domestic zero-coupon bond.
> Addendum
Here, we provide a mathematical derivation that the process $\left\{\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}, \, 0 \le t \le T \right\}$ is a martingale under the domestic risk-neutral measure $\mathbb{Q}^d$.
Let $\mathbb{Q}^f$ be the foreign risk-neutral measure, and $\mathbb{E}^f$ be the corresponding expectation operator. Note that the process $\left\{\frac{P^f(t, T)}{B_t^f}, \, 0 \le t \le T \right\}$ is a martingale under the foreign risk-neutral measure. We denote by $\eta_t$ the Radon–Nikodym derivative \begin{align*} \frac{d\mathbb{Q}^d}{d\mathbb{Q}^f}\big|_t = \frac{B_t^d X_0}{B_t^f X_t}. \end{align*} Then, for $0 \le s \le t \le T$, \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}\left(\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}\, \big| \, \mathcal{F}_s\right) &= \mathbb{E}^f\left(\frac{\eta_t}{\eta_s}\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}\, \big| \, \mathcal{F}_s\right)\\ &=\mathbb{E}^f\left(\frac{B_t^d}{B_t^f X_t} \frac{B_s^f X_s}{B_s^d}\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}\, \big| \, \mathcal{F}_s\right)\\ &=\frac{B_s^f X_s}{B_s^d}\mathbb{E}^f\left(\frac{P^f(t, T)}{B_t^f}\, \big| \, \mathcal{F}_s\right)\\ &=\frac{P^f(s, T)X_s}{B_s^d}. \end{align*} That is, $\left\{\frac{P^f(t, T)X_t}{B_t^d}, \, 0 \le t \le T \right\}$ is a martingale under the domestic risk-neutral measure.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.