Valuing an Option to Switch from a Call to a Put
Summary
The document analyzes a contract that starts as a call and lets its holder choose at an intermediate date whether to retain call exposure or switch to a put with the same strike and later expiry. At the decision date, the holder should choose the option with the greater value. Using put-call parity, one answer decomposes that maximum into the value of a put expiring at the original maturity plus a call expiring at the switch date, with a strike adjusted for discounting over the remaining term.
This decomposition gives a practical valuation route using familiar Black-Scholes-type option prices under the assumptions behind put-call parity and risk-neutral pricing. Another answer describes the value at the decision time as the discounted conditional expectation of the larger continuation value. The discussion assumes matching underlying, strike, and maturity for the alternatives, and uses a constant risk-free rate in its displayed formulas; other contract features or market assumptions may change the valuation.
Key ideas
- At the switch date, the holder chooses whichever continuation option is worth more.
- Put-call parity expresses the choice value as a put plus a call with an adjusted strike.
- The decomposition prices the put to the original maturity and the call to the decision date.
- The stated formulas rely on assumptions such as a constant risk-free rate and standard option terms.
Tags
Full text
# How to price an option allowing to change a call into a put?
# How to price an option allowing to change a call into a put?
A recruiter asked me this question:
Suppose you have the following contract:
- a call option with maturity $T$ = 2 years
- the possibility to change this call into a put at $t$ = 1 year
What is the price of such contract ?
I begin with $E[\left((-1)^{\tau}(S_{T}-K)\right)^{+}e^{-rT}]$ with $\tau$ a random variable that equals $+1$ if we change the call into a put and $-1$ if we don't change it, but i'm stuck with this...
## Answer by Gordon (score 4, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/21978
Let $t=1$ and $T=2$. The value at time $t$ is given by \begin{align*} &\ e^{-r(T-t)}\max\left(E\left((S_T-K)^+\mid \mathcal{F}_{t}\right), \, E\left((K-S_T)^+\mid \mathcal{F}_{t}\right)\right) \\ =&\ e^{-r(T-t)}E\left((K-S_T)^+\mid \mathcal{F}_{t}\right) +e^{-r(T-t)}\max\left(E\left((S_T-K)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t}\right), \, 0\right)\\ =&\ e^{-r(T-t)}E\left((K-S_T)^+\mid \mathcal{F}_{t}\right) +\max\left(S_{t}-Ke^{-r(T-t)}, \, 0\right). \end{align*} That is, the value is for a portfolio with a put at $T$ and a call at $t$, and can be computed using formulas of Black-Scholes type.
## Answer by SRKX (score 5)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22016
Let's define $t=0$, $T_1 = 1$ and $T_2 = 2$.
I believe the interviewer is looking for the price of the "global" option $V_t$ for $t \leq T_1 \leq T_2 $.
Let's define the payoff at time $T_1$: it is the maximum between the value of a call or a put on the same underlying with maturity at $T_2$.
$$\text{Payoff}_{T_1} = \max( c_{T_1}, p_{T_1} )$$
where $c_{T_1}$ and $p_{T_1}$ are respectively the price at time $T_1$ of a call and a put under the same underlying with expiry at time $T_2$.
As noted by Gordon, we know that $\max( a, b ) = b + ( a - b )^+$, hence:
$$\text{Payoff}_{T_1} = p_{T_1} + ( c_{T_1} - p_{T_1} )^+$$
By the put call parity, we know that $c_{T_1} - p_{T_1} = S_{T_1} - e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K$ and therefore we get:
$$\text{Payoff}_{T_1} = p_{T_1} + ( S_{T_1} - e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K )^+$$.
Let's write the general statement: $$V_t = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} \text{Payoff}_{T_1} | \mathcal{F}_t \right] = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} \left( p_{T_1} + ( S_{T_1} - e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K )^+ \right) | \mathcal{F}_t \right]$$
We can split the value into two main terms:
$$V_t = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} p_{T_1} | \mathcal{F}_t \right] + \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} ( S_{T_1} - e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K )^+ | \mathcal{F}_t \right]$$
We see that the second term is simply the price at time $t$ of a call option on $S$ expiring at $T_1$ with strike $K' = e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K$.
Furthermore, we know that:
$$ p_{T_1} = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_2 - T_1)} (K - S_{T_2}) | \mathcal{F}_{T_1} \right]$$
So the first term can be seen as:
$$\mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_2 - T_1)} (K - S_{T_2})^+ | \mathcal{F}_{T_1} \right] | \mathcal{F}_t \right] = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_1 - t)} e^{-r(T_2 - T_1)} (K - S_{T_2})^+ | \mathcal{F}_t \right] = \mathbb{E}_Q \left[ e^{-r(T_2 - t)} (K - S_{T_2})^+ | \mathcal{F}_t \right] $$
because of the iterated conditoning rule and since $\mathcal{F}_t \subseteq \mathcal{F}_{T_1}$.
This second term is the value at time $t$ of a put expiring at time $T_2$ with strike $K$.
So the answer is that at time $t$ the value of the option is the value of the put plus the value of a call expiring at $T_1$ with strike $K' = e^{-r(T_2-T_1)}K$.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.