When a LEPO Can Be Worth More Than Its Underlying Stock
Summary
The document explains why an Australian low exercise price option (LEPO) may have a value above the underlying stock price when dividends are included. In the simplified setup, the comparison is between the financing cost of buying and holding the stock until maturity and the dividend income accumulated over that period. The stated condition is that the interest rate must be sufficiently high relative to the present value of future dividends.
This does not violate the usual upper bound for a call option because that bound assumes the option premium is paid upfront. A LEPO’s premium is settled forward at maturity, so the timing of payment differs. The explanation simplifies by treating the exercise price as zero and ignoring margining; it gives a condition and replication intuition, not a complete pricing model for actual contracts.
Key ideas
- A LEPO can be priced above the stock when financing the stock position costs more than the dividends earned.
- The relevant rate threshold depends on the present value of dividends and time to maturity.
- The usual call-price upper bound assumes an upfront premium, unlike the forward-settled LEPO premium described here.
- The replication explanation ignores the nonzero exercise price and margining.
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# Fair value for a LEPO (Low Exercise Price Options)
# Fair value for a LEPO (Low Exercise Price Options)
In one of my lecture notes, I stumble across this exercise question:
> Consider Low Exercise Price Options, LEPOs, (with dividends) in Australia. Using the value at the outset, explain why such options are sometimes priced above $S_0$.
I am confused how to continue to answer the above question. Is the following is the statement we are trying to show?$$(S_0 - D)e^{rt}>>S_0$$ If yes, how do I show such statement holds? In case of $D=0$ it is obvious that the above holds, but how to prove such statement for some $D>0$?
On a side note, I am also confused with this question, isn't it violating the upper bound of call options, i.e. $c_t \leq S_t$?
Thank you, any help is highly appreciated
## Answer by LocalVolatility (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/32829
From
\begin{equation} \left( S_0 - D \right) e^{r T} > S_0, \end{equation}
you see that this is true when
\begin{equation} r > \frac{1}{T} \ln \left( \frac{S_0}{S_0 - D} \right), \end{equation}
i.e. when the interest rate is sufficiently large relative to the present value of future dividends.
When you replicate the LEPO, and ignoring that $X$ is not actually equal to 0, you buy one stock initially. The cost of financing this position until maturity is $S_0 \left( e^{r T} - 1 \right)$ and the returns for holding it is $D e^{r T}$. When the former is higher than the latter, then the overall cost of replication are positive and the initial price of the LEPO is above $S_0$.
Having the LEPO priced above $S_0$ is not a contradiction to the no-arbitrage bounds of a call option $C_0 < S_0$. The latter applies to call options where the premium is paid upfront i.e. at $t = 0$. In case of the LEPO (ignoring margining) the premium is settled forward-style at the maturity date $t = T$.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.