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Why a Coupon Bond at Par Has Yield Equal to Its Coupon Rate

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Wantoast

Summary

The document explains why a fixed-coupon bond priced at face value has a yield to maturity equal to its coupon rate. It starts from the present-value equation for coupon payments and repayment of principal, then applies the finite geometric-series formula to the coupon stream. Setting price equal to face value allows the discounting terms to cancel, leaving the coupon payment divided by face value as the yield.

A second explanation gives the intuition: when coupons and principal are discounted at the coupon rate, their combined present value equals par. A numerical illustration with a three-year note shows the discounted coupon and final payment adding to face value. The argument assumes conventional fixed cash flows and a consistent yield convention; it does not discuss complications such as accrued interest, changing rates, credit risk, or bonds with embedded options.

Key ideas

  • Bond price equals the present value of its coupon payments and principal repayment.
  • The coupon stream can be simplified with the finite geometric-series formula.
  • When the bond price equals face value, the yield to maturity equals the coupon payment divided by face value.
  • Discounting fixed coupons and principal at the coupon rate makes their present value equal par.

Tags

Full text
# Why does the YTM equal the coupon rate at par?


# Why does the YTM equal the coupon rate at par?












I know the YTM of a coupon bond is the interest rate $i$ which verifies

$ P =\frac{C}{(1+i)} + \frac{C}{(1+i)^2} + ...+ \frac{C}{(1+i)^n} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n} $

where $P$ is price, $C$ is the coupon payment and $F$ is face value.

I don't understand why $i = C/F$ when $P=F$. In words: I can't grasp why the yield to maturity equals the coupon rate when the bond is priced at face value.

On the one hand I can't solve that equation above so that this fact is verified, but I might need some tools I don't have yet to do so. On the other hand it doesn't make intuitive sense to me on a conceptual level.

What am I missing?

## Answer by Andrew (score 8, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/42821

Let $P$ denote the dirty price, $F$ the face value and $i$ the YTM. Using the geometric sum we get

\begin{align} P &= \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{C}{{(1+i)}^j} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n}\\ &= C\frac{1-\frac{1}{{(1+i)}^n} }{i} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n} \end{align}

and thus

\begin{align} P=F \Leftrightarrow & F= C\frac{1-\frac{1}{{(1+i)}^n} }{i} + \frac{F}{(1+i)^n} \\ \Leftrightarrow & C\left(1-\frac{1}{{(1+i)}^n}\right) =i \left( F- \frac{F}{(1+i)^n} \right)\\ \Leftrightarrow & \frac{C}{F} = i \end{align}

## Answer by PlantFox (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/42817

The price of a bond is determined by the sum of the discounted cashflows plus the discounted face value of the bond. Intuitively and academically, a bond cannot be worth more than the sum of the future cashflows plus future value. In the case of yield equaling coupon rate, the price is equal to par because the rate at which you are discounting makes it so that the sum of the discounted cashflows and discounted par equal present par. Understanding this, by looking at the equation you should be able to convince yourself that is the case. Here is a simple example using a 3 year note with a 3% coupon:

$$ 100 = \frac{3}{(1+0.03)^1} + \frac{3}{(1+0.03)^2} + \frac{100+3}{(1+0.03)^3}$$ $$ 100 = 2.912621 \ + \ 2.827788 \ + \ 94.25959 $$

Let me know if that helps.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.