Why a Delta-Hedged Option Position Earns the Risk-Free Rate in the Model
Summary
The document discusses why a delta-hedged option portfolio is assigned the risk-free return in no-arbitrage pricing. It describes a short call hedged with stock and considers the portfolio value as the stock hedge minus the call liability. One answer emphasizes that the risk-free growth condition is imposed when deriving the option price. Other answers give a financing interpretation: constructing a hedged position leaves cash proceeds, or a borrowing requirement, whose value accrues at the risk-free rate.
The explanation is framed within idealized assumptions, including effective hedging and the absence of residual risks such as gamma effects. The key point is a pricing-model argument, not a promise that a real dealer continuously earns a positive risk-free yield. Actual positions incur costs and can retain risks as prices and hedge ratios change; the discussion does not quantify these effects or establish a standalone trading edge.
Key ideas
- No-arbitrage option pricing imposes risk-free growth on a locally riskless hedged portfolio.
- A delta hedge combines an option position with stock sized according to the option’s delta.
- The hedge construction creates cash proceeds or a borrowing balance that is financed at the risk-free rate.
- The argument assumes away residual risks and does not imply guaranteed realized profits in practice.
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# How does a Delta Hedged portfolio yield the Risk-free?
# How does a Delta Hedged portfolio yield the Risk-free?
Here I'm considering the simple case of a dealer writing call options on a stock and hedging the short position with a "textbook" Delta Hedge, i.e. goes long on $N_c \times Delta$ stocks (where $N_c$ is the number of written calls and $Delta$ is the Delta of the options).
The value of my portfolio is given by: $$ V_t = N_c \cdot Delta_t \cdot S_t - N_c \cdot c_t = N_c ( Delta_t \cdot S_t - c_t ) $$
Assuming that nothing changes (stock price, delta, etc.) and pretending that the hedge is really effective, i.e. the portfolio is really risk-free and there is no Gamma effect or anything else that could disrupt the hedge, then this portfolio should earn the risk-free rate... Why?
I understand the arbitrage pricing principle that a hedged/riskless amount of money invested should earn the risk-free rate, but I cannot see the economic explanation.
What are the components growing at the risk-free? What is the arbitrage strategy that would force the value of a Delta hedged portfolio to drift at the risk-free rate?
Here some more thoughts on this "dilemma":
- I know that $Delta_t$ and $c_t$ actually decrease with time till they go to zero at expiry of the option ceteris paribus (please, correct me if I'm wrong)... but still I don't see how this would explain any risk-free yield.
- Very often, I see the argument saying that the proceeds from the short position on the calls is invested at the risk-free rate. But this cannot be the explanation, can it? Aren't my proceeds expensed in the purchase of the stocks? And second, the posit is that the whole delta hedged portfolio yields the risk-free and not just the short call proceeds.
- Here I found a nice explanation by Alex C: Why/How does a hedged portfolio make profits? saying:
> An Investment Bank earns a profit by selling you an option at a slightly higher price than the theoretical price, or buying it back from you at a slightly lower price. They call this "earning a spread". Then they hedge the option, so as not to make any [further] gains or losses on it (other than the risk free rate). Another way they could earn a profit is if they have a more accurate estimate of volatility than other people have. But that is not easy to do consistently.
However this is just telling me how option writers charge me more to make a profit. It is not telling me what is the arbitrage opportunity that compels the value of that portfolio to drift at the risk-free rate.
- Where in the formula for the call price (and the Delta) do I see that there is a drift that would "magically" make a delta hedged portfolio drift at the risk-free rate?
## Answer by moumous87 (score 3)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/39728
I'll put here the answer provided in a comment by @dm63 (thanks by the way):
> The requirement that the portfolio earns the risk free rate is something we are imposing in order to calculate the option price.
## Answer by Ivan (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/39729
I disagree with the view that it’s only a definition. There has to be a physical reality underlying the claim. One cannot just decree that the portfolio grows at the risk-free rate.
Note the portfolio grows at the risk-free rate, it doesn’t necessarily mean you always earn it, you may well be paying it.
In your particular example, the dealer has received the Call premium $C$ and has borrowed $\frac{\partial{C}}{\partial{S}}-C$ to fund its delta hedge.
That term is the value of the portfolio, and since it is money borrowed (by model assumption at the risk-free rate), it costs the risk-free rate to its holder.
## Answer by Derek Zweig (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/71358
Ivan has the right idea. It’s the process of constructing the hedged portfolio that leaves you with proceeds to invest at the risk free rate.
Say you’re long the call and short delta amount of the stock. Start by shorting the stock and receiving delta * S in proceeds. Then using the proceeds you purchase the call for C. Total proceeds are delta * S - C. This is the same as the value of the portfolio. So when you invest these proceeds at the risk free rate, it’s equivalent to saying the portfolio value grows at the risk free rate.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.