Why a Forward Price Includes the Cost of Financing
Summary
The document explains why a forward contract with zero value at inception generally has a delivery price different from today’s spot price. It uses replication: hold the underlying asset and finance the delivery payment with a riskless bond position. Equating the resulting value to zero gives the no arbitrage forward price as spot grown at the risk free rate over the contract term.
An accompanying intuition is that a forward defers payment, allowing the buyer to keep capital invested until delivery; the financing benefit is reflected in the forward price. The discussion assumes the simplified setting described, with no income, storage costs, or other carrying costs for the asset. Actual forward pricing can require adjustments when such factors matter.
Key ideas
- A forward delivery price is set so the contract has zero value at inception.
- Replication combines a long position in the asset with borrowing or lending to fund the delivery payment.
- With the stated assumptions, the forward price equals spot compounded at the risk free rate over the term.
- Income or other carrying costs can change the relationship between spot and forward prices.
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Full text
# Why is the spot price not used as the forward price when a forward contract is created?
# Why is the spot price not used as the forward price when a forward contract is created?
If the initial value of a forward contract is zero, surely the forward price used would be the spot price at the time the contract was created?
However, my notes tell me that the forward price F, at $t = 0$ for delivery at time $t = T$, is given by $F = e^{rT}S_{0}$ where r is the risk-free rate and $S_{0}$ is the spot price at $t = 0$.
Why is this?
## Answer by Mark Joshi (score 3)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/19259
it's easiest to see in terms of replication. The pay-off of a forward contract is $$ S_T - K. $$ We can replicate this precisely and statically by buying one unit of stock, $S_0,$ and $Ke^{-rT}$ riskless bonds growing at rate $r.$
So its value today is $$ S_0 - Ke^{-rT}. $$ This has zero value if and only if $K= S_0 e^{rT}.$
This value is then called the forward price since it makes the forward contract have zero value.
## Answer by nbbo2 (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/19247
When you buy a forward you don't have to invest any money, so that's to your advantage in a world of positive interest rates. To charge you the same as the spot rate would be unfair, you would be "getting something for nothing", that is why the appropriate price for a forward is higher. It takes the interest rate into account, balancing things out. In equilibrium you are indifferent between a cheaper spot and a more expensive forward that frees up your money (which you can invest elsewhere).
## Answer by Gordon (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/19250
The forward price $F$ for a forward contract, determined at the contract inception time today, is the price that the holder will pay at maturity $T$ to buy the underlying equity. Then the payoff, at maturity $T$, of the forward contract is given by \begin{align*} S_T-F. \end{align*} The present value of the contract is then \begin{align*} e^{-rT} \mathbb{E}\big(S_T-F\big) = S_0 - e^{-rT} F. \end{align*} As the forward price $F$ is determined so that the value of the forward contract is zero, we have \begin{align*} F= S_0 e^{rT}. \end{align*}Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.