Skip to content
All library documents

Why a Square-Integrable Itô Integral Has Zero Expectation

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Maaniya

Summary

The document addresses the expectation of an Itô integral whose integrand combines a deterministic volatility function with the complex exponential of a Brownian-driven process. Its central principle is that an Itô integral with an adapted, square-integrable integrand has zero expectation. The proposed integrand is checked for square integrability using the Gaussian distribution of the process and its variance, which follows from Itô isometry.

The explanation proceeds through the defining properties of the stochastic integral and the characteristic function of a centered normal variable. Its scope is the deterministic-volatility setup in the question. The source excerpt stops after establishing integrability, so it does not spell out the final application of the zero-mean theorem, and the stated square-integrability condition should be read with the usual assumptions on the volatility function.

Key ideas

  • An Itô integral with a suitable adapted, square-integrable integrand has expectation zero.
  • The process formed by integrating deterministic volatility against Brownian motion is centered Gaussian.
  • Its variance is the integral of squared volatility, as given by Itô isometry.
  • The complex exponential integrand can be bounded in mean square using the Gaussian characteristic function.

Tags

Full text
# How to show that $E\left[ \int_0^t \sigma(s) e^{iuX(s)} dW(s)\right] = 0$?


# How to show that $E\left[ \int_0^t \sigma(s) e^{iuX(s)} dW(s)\right] = 0$?












Let $\sigma(t)$ be a given deterministic function of time and define the process $X_t$ by $$X(t) = \int_0^t \sigma(s)dW(s)$$ I want to show $$E\left[ \int_0^t \sigma(s) e^{iuX(s)} dW(s)\right] = 0$$

It is part of exercise 4.3 in Bjork "Arbitrage Theory in continuous time", and you can see the solution here:

The solution does not explain it.

## Answer by user16651 (score 4)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/31671

Some basic details

$\quad$ The Itô integral can be defined in a manner similar to the Riemann–Stieltjes integral, that is as a limit in probability of Riemann sums; such a limit does not necessarily exist pathwise. Suppose that $W_t$ is a Wiener process and that $\sigma_t$ is a right-continuous (cadlag), adapted and locally bounded process if $I=\{t_0,t_1,\cdots,t_n\}$ is a sequence of partitions of $[0,t]$ with mesh going to zero, then the Itô integral of $\sigma_t$ with respect to $W_t$ up to time t is a random variable $$X_t=\int_{0}^{t}\sigma(s)dW_s=\lim_{n\to\infty}\,\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sigma(t_{i-1})(W(t_i)-W(t_{i-1}))$$ since $\sigma(s)$ is deterministic process and $W({t_i})-W(t_{i-1})\sim\mathcal{N}(0,t_i-t_{i-1})$ , thus $X_t$ is normally distributed such that \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}[X_t]&=\mathbb{E}\left[\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sigma(t_{i-1})(W_{t_i}-W_{t_{i-1}})\right]\\ &=\lim_{n\to\infty}\mathbb{E}\left[\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sigma(t_{i-1})(W_{t_i}-W_{t_{i-1}})\right]\\ &=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\mathbb{E}\left[\sigma(t_{i-1})(W_{t_i}-W_{t_{i-1}})\right]\\ &=\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sigma(t_{i-1})\mathbb{E}\left[W_{t_i}-W_{t_{i-1}}\right]\\ &=0 . \end{align*} By application of Ito's isometry formula, we have $$\text{Var}(X_t)=\text{Var}\left(\int_{0}^{t}\sigma(s)dW_s\right)=\mathbb{E}\left[\left(\int_{0}^{t}\sigma(s)dW_s\right)^2\right]=\mathbb{E}\left[\int_{0}^{t}\sigma^2_sds\right]=\int_{0}^{t}\sigma^2_sds$$

Proof

If $Y(t)$ be a regular adapted process such that $\int_{0}^{t}\mathbb{E}\left[ Y^2(s)\right]ds < \infty$ then $$\mathbb{E}\left[\int_{0}^{t}Y(s)dW_s\right]=0$$ Set $Y(s)=\sigma(s) e^{iuX(s)} $, we have $$\int_{0}^{t}\mathbb{E}\left[ Y^2(s)\right]ds=\int_{0}^{t}\mathbb{E}\left[ \sigma^2(s) e^{2iuX(s)}\right]ds=\int_{0}^{t}\sigma^2(s)\mathbb{E} \left[ e^{2iuX(s)}\right]ds\tag 1$$ $X(t)$ is normally distributed with zero mean and a variance given by $$\text{Var}(X_s)=\int_{0}^{s}\sigma^2(v)dv$$ thus $$\mathbb{E} \left[ e^{2iuX(s)}\right]=\exp\left(2\text{i}\,u\,\mathbb{E}[X_s]-2u^2\text{Var}(X_s)\right)\tag 2$$

As a result $$\int_{0}^{t}\mathbb{E}\left[ Y^2(s)\right]ds=\int_{0}^{t}\sigma^2(s)\exp\left(-2u^2\int_{0}^{s}\sigma^2(v)dv\right)ds<\infty$$

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.