Skip to content
All library documents

Why Black–Scholes PDEs Use Opposite Time Derivative Signs

Article Quant Q&A · Author: emcor

Summary

The document explains why Black–Scholes partial differential equations may show opposite signs on the time derivative. The difference comes from the time variable: calendar time runs forward toward maturity, while time to maturity runs backward toward the present. With time to maturity defined as maturity minus calendar time, the derivative changes sign.

The choice also changes the boundary condition used to solve the equation. In calendar time, the option value is specified by its payoff at maturity, making it a terminal condition. In time-to-maturity coordinates, the payoff is specified at zero time remaining, which acts as an initial condition. The post derives the PDE through a hedged portfolio and says that changing variables can also help transform it into the heat equation. It gives a convention-based explanation, not a numerical example or broader discussion of discretization methods.

Key ideas

  • The sign difference reflects whether the independent time variable runs forward or measures time remaining.
  • Changing from calendar time to time to maturity reverses the sign of the time derivative.
  • Calendar-time formulations use the payoff at maturity as a terminal condition.
  • Time-to-maturity formulations use the payoff at zero remaining time as an initial condition.
  • A time change can help transform the Black–Scholes PDE into the heat equation.

Tags

Full text
# Black Scholes PDE


# Black Scholes PDE












I seen two variations of the Black-Scholes PDE with either $+{\frac {\partial V}{\partial t}}$ or $-{\frac {\partial V}{\partial t}}$, and wanted to ask why that is?

a) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black%E2%80%93Scholes_equation#Solving_the_PDE $${\frac {\partial V}{\partial t}}+{\frac {1}{2}}\sigma ^{2}S^{2}{\frac {\partial ^{2}V}{\partial S^{2}}}+rS{\frac {\partial V}{\partial S}}-rV=0$$

b) https://www.quantstart.com/articles/C-Explicit-Euler-Finite-Difference-Method-for-Black-Scholes $$-{\frac {\partial V}{\partial t}}+{\frac {1}{2}}\sigma ^{2}S^{2}{\frac {\partial ^{2}V}{\partial S^{2}}}+rS{\frac {\partial V}{\partial S}}-rV=0$$

Please see below derivation of Black-Scholes PDE:

\begin{align*} \Pi &= C(S,t)+\Delta S\\ d\Pi &=dC(S,t)+\Delta dS\\ &= C_S dS+C_t dt + \frac{1}{2}C_{SS}d[S]+ \frac{1}{2}C_{tt}d[t]+ C_{St}d[S,t]+\Delta dS\\ &= C_S(S\mu dt+S\sigma dW)+C_tdt+\frac{1}{2}C_{SS}S^2\sigma^2dt+\Delta (S\mu dt+S\sigma dW)\\ &= (\Delta S\sigma+C_SS\sigma)dW+(C_SS\mu+C_t+\frac{1}{2}C_{SS}S^2\sigma^2+\Delta S\mu)dt \end{align*} Hedge: \begin{align*} d\Pi&\stackrel{!}{=}\Pi rdt\Rightarrow \Delta = -C_S:\\ &\Pi rdt= (C_t+\frac{1}{2}C_{SS}S^2\sigma^2)dt\\ &\Leftrightarrow(C-C_S S) rdt= (C_t+\frac{1}{2}C_{SS}S^2\sigma^2)dt \end{align*} $$\Rightarrow C_t+\frac{1}{2}C_{SS}S^2\sigma^2-r(C-C_S S)= 0$$

## Answer by Kevin (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/50166

Your derivation is right and as Alex said, the only difference between the equations is how you measure time. There are two possibilities

- Time going forward, $t\in[0,T]$,

- Time going backwards, $\tau\in[T,0]$, i.e. $\tau=T-t$.

And clearly, after the change of variables, $\frac{\partial V}{\partial t}=-\frac{\partial V}{\partial\tau}$. Amongst others, this change of variables is employed to transform the Black-Scholes PDE into the heat (diffusion) equation.

Note that using $t\in[0,T]$ means that the corresponding PDE needs to be solved subject to a terminal payoff condition $V(t=T,S_t)=\varphi(S_T)$. On the other hand, using the time-to-maturity $\tau$, the PDE is solved subject to an initial condition $V(\tau=0,S_\tau)=\varphi(S_T)$.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.