Why Black-Scholes Values Depend on the Terminal Payoff
Summary
The document addresses a common misunderstanding about the Black-Scholes partial differential equation: the equation can remain unchanged when the terminal payoff changes, while the option value does not. The PDE describes how a derivative value evolves under the model; the payoff at expiration supplies the terminal condition for solving it backward in time. A standard call payoff and a payoff based on the square of the underlying therefore lead to different solutions even if both use the same PDE.
A response also sketches a risk-neutral pricing calculation for the squared-underlying payoff, using the distribution of the log of the squared asset price and discounting its expected terminal payoff. This illustrates how a specified payoff is valued under the model. The excerpt's displayed derivation is not a full treatment of boundary conditions or numerical solution methods, and its formula should be checked independently before use. The central conceptual lesson is the distinction between the pricing equation and the payoff data that determine its solution.
Key ideas
- The Black-Scholes PDE can be the same for different derivative payoffs.
- The terminal payoff acts as a boundary condition that determines the solution.
- Changing the payoff changes the option value at earlier times.
- Risk-neutral pricing values a payoff by discounting its expected terminal value.
- The excerpt's specialized formula should be verified before practical use.
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# Black-Scholes PDE & Terminal Condition
# Black-Scholes PDE & Terminal Condition
Just a quick question I was hoping someone could shed light on.
- So far I am familiar with the Black-Scholes PDE with the terminal condition at time $T$ been $V(t=T,S)=(S-K)^+$.
- I also understand that the Black-Scholes PDE does not contain $S(T)$ and therefore is independent of the terminal condition.
As such, if the terminal condition was to be $(S^2 - K)^+$ the PDE for the call option remains the same - at least that is what I am told.
Intuitively I don't understand the logic behind this?
For example, if $K$ is 50 and $S$ ends up been 100;
- $(S - K) = \$50$, where as.
- $(S^2 - K) = 10,000 - 50 = \$9,950$
Surely the $(S^2 - K)+$ option must be worth a lot more?
But apparently the PDE for both these options is the same and therefore the time $t$ value is also the same?
Could anyone please explain?
## Answer by aw80 (score 2, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/27445
The PDE will be the same but because the terminal condition is different the solutions will not be the same. The different boundary condition will give different values at $t=T$. Then the equation is marched backwards in time in both cases using the same equation but because the terminal condition is different the solutions will not agree
## Answer by user16651 (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/27448
It is reasonable and PDE approach is not suitable. In the Black scholes model we have $$d\ln {{S}_{T}}=\,(r-\frac{1}{2}{{\sigma }^{2}})dt+\sigma d{{W}_{t}}$$ so $$d\ln {{S}_{T}^2}=\,(2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})dt+2\sigma d{{W}_{t}}$$ as a result $$\ln {{S}_{T}^2}=\ln{{S}_{t}^2}\,+(2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})(T-t)+2\sigma (W_T-W_t)$$ let $$Y(t)=(2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})(T-t)+2\sigma [W(T)-W(t)]$$ it is clear \begin{align} & \,\,\,\,{{E}^{\mathbb{Q}}}\left[ Y(t) \right]=(2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})(T-t) \\ & {{\operatorname{var}}^{\mathbb{Q}}}\left[ Y(t) \right]=4{{\sigma }^{2}}(T-t) \\ \end{align} in the other words we can say $$Y\overset{d}{\mathop{=}}\,\ N\left( (2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})(T-t)\,,4{{\sigma }^{2}}\left( T-t \right) \right)$$ For simplicity we let ${\widetilde{r}}=(2r-{{\sigma }^{2}})$ and $\tau =(T-t)$ so $Y\overset{d}{\mathop{=}}\,\ N\,(\overset{\tilde{\ }}{\mathop{r}}\,\tau \,,{4{\sigma }^{2}}\tau )$ as a result
$$\frac{Y-\overset{\tilde{\ }}{\mathop{r}}\,\tau }{2\sigma \sqrt{\tau }}\overset{\,\,d}{\mathop{\,=}}\,\ N(0,\,1)$$
we have $$\Pi (t)=e^{-{r}\tau}{{E}_{t}}^{Q}\left[ {{({{S}_{T}}^{2}-K)}^{+}} \right]=e^{-{r}\tau}{{E}_{t}}^{Q}\left[ {{({{S}_{t}}^{2}{{e}^{{{Y}_{t}}}}-K)}^{+}} \right] $$ $$\Pi (t)=e^{-{r}\tau}\int\limits_{-\infty }^{\infty }{{{({{S}_{t}}^{2}\,{{e}^{y}}-K,\,0)}^{+}}\,{{f}_{Y}}}(y)\,dy$$ Finally we should do same procedure with $(S_T-K)^+$, then $$\Pi (t)={{S}_{t}}{{\,}^{2}}N\left[ {{d}_{1}} \right]-K{{e}^{-r\,\tau}}\ N\left[ {{d}_{2}} \right]$$ where \begin{align} & {{d}_{1}}=\frac{(2r+3{{\sigma }^{2}})\tau +\ln \left( \frac{{{S}_{t}}^{2}}{K} \right)}{2\sigma \sqrt{\tau }} \\ & {{d}_{2}}={{d}_{1}}-2\sigma \sqrt{\tau } \\ \end{align}Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.