Why Deterministic Itô Integrals Form Gaussian Processes
Summary
The document explains how to establish that an Itô integral with a deterministic integrand is a Gaussian process. Showing that the integral at each individual time is normally distributed is not sufficient by itself; the process definition also requires every finite collection of its values to be jointly Gaussian.
The answer demonstrates this for two ordered times by splitting the integrals into a shared interval and a later, disjoint interval. Brownian increments on those intervals are independent, so the joint moment-generating function factors into terms for normal random variables. The resulting expression identifies the joint normal distribution and its covariance from integrals of the squared deterministic integrand. This gives a route to the finite-dimensional distributions needed for the Gaussian-process claim. The explanation illustrates the two-time case rather than spelling out the full arbitrary finite-time argument, which follows the same independent-increment idea. It assumes a deterministic integrand for which the stated integrals are defined.
Key ideas
- A process is Gaussian when every finite collection of its values has a joint normal distribution.
- The marginal normality of each integral value alone does not establish joint normality.
- Splitting the integral at ordered observation times exposes independent Brownian increments.
- The covariance between two integral values is determined by the squared integrand integrated over their shared time interval.
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Full text
# Show that the Ito integral is Gaussian
# Show that the Ito integral is Gaussian
Let $f(t), 0 \leq t \leq T$ be a deterministic function with $f(t) = \sum_{i=1}^na_{i-1}1_[t_{i=1}, t_i)(t)$ with $0 \leq t_0<t_1<...<t_{n-1} = T$. Show that the stochastic integral $I_t(f) = \int_0^tf(s)dW_s$ is a Gaussian process.
Following the method in this: Distribution of stochastic integral, I can show that each $I_t(f)$ is normally distributed for all $t$.
To show that $I_t(f)$ is Gaussian, I need to show that for all $0 \leq t_1 < ... < t_n$ and any $a_1, ..., a_n \in \mathbb{R}$, $a_1I_{t_1}(f) + .. + a_n I_{t_n}(f)$ is Gaussian with mean 0. This would be true if the $I_{t_i}$ were jointly normally distributed, because then any linear combination of them is also gaussian. Is this the right way of going about it, or is there a simpler way?
## Answer by LocalVolatility (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/39511
Your approach makes sense. Consider two times $t_1 < t_2$. We are interested in the joint moment generating function
\begin{eqnarray} \Psi \left( u_1, u_2 \right) & = & \mathbb{E} \left[ \exp \left\{ u_1 \int_0^{t_1} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u + u_2 \int_0^{t_2} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u \right\} \right]\\ & = & \mathbb{E} \left[ \exp \left\{ \left( u_1 + u_2 \right) \int_0^{t_1} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u \right\} \right] \mathbb{E} \left[ \exp \left\{ u_2 \int_{t_1}^{t_2} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u \right\} \right]. \end{eqnarray}
Here, we used the independence of the integral over $\left[ 0, t_1 \right]$ and $\left[ t_1, t_2 \right]$ in the second step to factor the expectation.
We know that for any $s_1 < s_2$
\begin{equation} \mathbb{E} \left[ \exp \left\{ u \int_{s_1}^{s_2} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u - \frac{1}{2} u^2 \int_{s_1}^{s_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \right\} \right] = 1 \end{equation}
and thus
\begin{equation} \mathbb{E} \left[ \exp \left\{ u \int_{s_1}^{s_2} f(u) \mathrm{d}W_u \right\} \right] = \exp \left\{ \frac{1}{2} u^2 \int_{s_1}^{s_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \right\}, \end{equation}
which is the moment generating function of a normal random variable with
\begin{equation} \mathcal{N} \left( 0, \int_{s_1}^{s_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \right). \end{equation}
This holds for any $s_1 < s_2$ and $u$ and thus also for
- $s_1 = 0$, $s_2 = t_1$ and $u = u_1 + u_2$ and
- $s_1 = t_1$ and $s_2 = t_2$ and $u = u_2$.
We get
\begin{eqnarray} \Psi \left( u_1, u_2 \right) & = & \exp \left\{ \frac{1}{2} \left[ \left( u_1 + u_2 \right)^2 \int_0^{t_1} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u + u_2^2 \int_{t_1}^{t_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \right] \right\} \nonumber\\ & = & \exp \left\{ \frac{1}{2} \left[ \left( u_1^2 + 2 u_1 u_2 \right) \int_0^{t_1} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u + u_2^2 \int_0^{t_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \right] \right\} \end{eqnarray}
But this is just the moment generating function of a bi-variate normal random variable with
\begin{equation} \mathcal{N}_2 \left( \left( \begin{array}{c} 0\\ 0 \end{array} \right), \left( \begin{array}{c c} \int_0^{t_1} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u & \int_0^{t_1} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u\\ \int_0^{t_1} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u & \int_{t_1}^{t_2} f^2(u) \mathrm{d}u \end{array} \right) \right). \end{equation}Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.