Why FX Volatility Smiles Use Delta Instead of Strike

# Delta on x-axis in Volatility smile


# Delta on x-axis in Volatility smile












I want to ask a perhaps simple question: Why do we use delta on the x-axis instead of the strike price when discussing volatility smile or volatility surface? In the book I'm currently reading, it is written, 'Different deltas correspond to different strike prices,' but I don't understand why.

Book: Derivatives: Theory and Practice of Trading, Valuation, and Risk Management (Jiří Witzany)

Thank you for your questions.

## Answer by AKdemy (score 1, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/77981

It's important to note that this is only done for certain markets, predominantly foreign exchange, and almost always OTC, where there is no set number of available strikes and no direct price quotes.

FX is vol quoted. Delta is a neat choice because it makes IV comparable across tenors. Depending on time to expiry, the same strike will be very different in terms of how "far" from ATM it is. Just as delta is an increasing function in vol, it also grows in time.

Comparing a 1y 10D call vs a 10y 10D call, with same $\sigma = 10\%$, $r_{CCY1}=-1\%$ and $r_{CCY2}=1\%$ gives use a strike that is much farther from the forward for the long maturity option.

```
function GKMSpot(S, K,t,ccy1,ccy2,σ)
    d1 = ( log(S/K) +  ( ccy2 -ccy1 + 0.5*σ^2)*t ) / (σ*sqrt(t))
    d2 = d1 - σ*sqrt(t)
    c  = S*exp(-ccy1*t)*N(d1)-K*exp(-ccy2*t)*N(d2)
    delta = exp(-ccy1*t)*N(d1)
  return c, round(delta*100,digits=2)
end
```

Likewise, it's easy to incorporate premium into delta for hedging purposes which is something unique to FX, where the choice of premium currency has an impact (e.g. in stock options you wouldn't pay in shares typically, but it's perfectly fine to pay in EUR or USD).

A lot of details are explained in a paper by Uwe Wystup and Dmitri Reiswich, which is a mist read for anyone I treated in FX options.

Some useful resources here (there are plenty of you search):

- Computing strike from delta

- delta conventions

- Plenty of details about IV and how the FX vol quotation works

- Delta premium included example (at the bottom)

## Answer by THATS MY QUANT MY QUANTITATIVE (score 0)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/77980

It's about giving the best "relative" measure. Using Moneyness rather than strike quotes gives more context around the option, thus giving more information. An option being $2 OTM could be deep-OTM, or it could be basically ATM. Delta is just another way of quoting a relative strike. Generally you want to quote with as much information as possible, but context matters. OTC derivatives will be quoted using butterflies, strangles etc because the investors trading those products will know what they mean and have the required tools to analyse them, i.e. Bloomberg. But someone wanting to buy 300, \$0.05 0DTE SPY puts on Robinhood probably wouldn't understand what they were buying if SPY options were being quoted in moneyness levels.