Skip to content
All library documents

Why Hull–White Calibration Often Fixes Mean Reversion

Article Quant Q&A · Author: user25844

Summary

The document explains why Hull–White interest-rate model calibration often fixes mean reversion while fitting volatility. With mean reversion held constant and volatility represented as a stepwise or piecewise-linear function, volatility can be bootstrapped to vanilla options grouped by expiry. The answer compares this with bootstrapping a discount curve: the procedure is presented as fast and stable.

For a Bermudan swaption, the example fits volatility to coterminal European swaption prices, which also serve as natural hedges. That makes the Bermudan valuation consistent with those European prices. Mean reversion remains a free parameter for marking the Bermudan. The discussion gives a practical calibration rationale, but it does not compare alternative joint or reversed calibrations, quantify errors, or prescribe how to choose the fixed mean-reversion value.

Key ideas

  • Fixing mean reversion allows a term structure of volatility to be bootstrapped to vanilla option prices by expiry.
  • The answer describes this volatility bootstrap as stable and fast.
  • Coterminal European swaptions can calibrate volatility for valuing a Bermudan swaption.
  • Mean reversion remains a free parameter that can affect the Bermudan valuation.

Tags

Full text
# why calibrate volatility and fix the mean reversion


# why calibrate volatility and fix the mean reversion












I have had a few experiences or chats with teammates about the Hull-White model.

The famous model has 2 parameters :

- The volatility

- The mean reversion

Very often I hear that the mean reversion has been fixed and that the calibration is only done on the volatility.

Why do that ? Why not fix the volatility and optimize on the mean reversion since both parameters have influence on the vanilla products ?

Moreover, why no optimize on both parameters simultaneously ?

Thanks a lot in advance for the context or opinions that help me to understand what are the justification of these practices.

## Answer by Antoine Conze (score 4, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/44058

Fixing the mean reversion, and parameterizing the volatility as a step function or as a piecewise linear function, the volatility can be bootstrapped exactly to a set of vanilla options sorted by expiries. This is a very stable and fast procedure, akin to the bootstrapping of a discount curve onto rate instruments.

For instance when pricing a bermuda swaption with the HW model, a mean reversion is first choosen and the volatility is then bootstrapped on the coterminal european swaptions market prices. Hence the bermuda swaption is priced in a manner consistent with the coterminal european swaptions prices (the coterminal swaptions are also the natural hedge to the bermuda swaption). The remaining degree of freedom, the mean reversion, becomes a parameter to mark the bermuda swaption (not sure if it is still the case, but I think at some point it was even contributed to Markit's Totem).

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.