Why Integrating a Differential of a Stochastic Process Gives Its Increment
Summary
The note asks why a textbook calculation integrates a differential involving a stochastic process using what looks like an ordinary Riemann integral. The answer distinguishes integrals with a variable integrand from the integral of a differential alone. For a semimartingale, integrating its differential over an interval gives the process increment, regardless of whether the integral is interpreted as Itô, Riemann–Stieltjes, or Stratonovich in this constant-integrand case.
The key point is that the different conventions matter when the integrand varies: Itô sums use left endpoints, while Stratonovich sums use midpoint-style averages. For a constant integrand, those choices coincide, so the fundamental increment identity applies. The answer clarifies the integration notation but does not reproduce the textbook equation or surrounding derivation, which limits its application to that specific calculation.
Key ideas
- The integral of a semimartingale differential over an interval equals the change in the process over that interval.
- Itô and Stratonovich conventions differ in how they evaluate a varying integrand across each partition interval.
- When the integrand is constant, the distinction between these integration conventions does not affect the result.
- The explanation addresses the integral identity but omits the surrounding textbook derivation.
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# Why this stochastic integral is calculated with Riemann integral
# Why this stochastic integral is calculated with Riemann integral
This picture is from Neftci's textbook, 'An Introduction to the Mathematics of Financial Derivatives, Third Edition'
What makes me uncomfortable is equation [10.61] In above picture. In this equation,$sW_s$ in the $d[sW_s]$ is definitively stochastic term.
So I think It is not rigorous to apply Riemann integral in this term. I mean, $∫^t_0dX = [X]^t_0 = t - 0... So ∫^t_0d[sW_s] = [sW_s]^t_0 = tW_t - 0*W_0. (because of W_0 = 0)$ this fundamental relationship should not be applied, because it has stochastic term.
But In the above picture, equation [10.61] seems to apply Riemann integral property not Ito integral property.
I want to know the reason why.
Thanks.
## Answer by Kurt G. (score 5, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/68369
For any semi martingale $X$ (in particular for $X_t=W_t$ or for $X_t=t$) we have $$\tag{1} \int_0^t dX_s=X_t-X_0\,. $$ You are correct that the Ito integral uses the limit procedure $$\tag{2} \int_0^tf(s)\,dX_s=\lim_{\max|t_i-t_{i-1}|\to 0}\sum_{i=1}^nf(t_{i-1})(X_{t_i}-X_{t_{i-1}}) $$ by which the integrand $f$ must be evaluated at the left endpoint of the interval $[t_{i-1},t_{i}]\,.$ In contrast, in the Riemann integral (or more generally the Stieltjes integral) the integrand can be evaluated at any point of that interval.
However, when the integrand is constant this difference does clearly not matter. In other words, we can interpret (1) as an Ito integral and a Riemann-Stieltjes integral at the same time. Also, when instead of (2) you define $$ \int_0^tf(s)\circ\,dX_s=\lim_{\max|t_i-t_{i-1}|\to 0}\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{f(t_i)+f(t_{i-1})}{2}(X_{t_i}-X_{t_{i-1}}) $$ you will obtain the Stratonovich integral. Clearly, (1) can be interpreted as Stratonovich integral as well.
To make along story short: (1) holds for all known types of integrals.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.