Why KMV Expected Default Frequencies Differ from Merton Probabilities
Summary
The document compares structural Merton default probabilities with Moody's KMV expected default frequencies. It explains that KMV does not simply convert distance to default into a normal probability: it maps that measure to default frequency using a proprietary database of historical defaults. As a result, a Merton implementation using a normal distribution can produce probability levels that differ substantially from KMV estimates.
The discussion also points to research comparing distance-to-default measures with observed default outcomes. That study found high rank correlation in its sample, despite nominal probability levels being poorly calibrated, and used a Cox model to address the calibration issue. This suggests that ranking firms and estimating their absolute default probabilities are distinct tasks. The document notes that debt measurement and other model inputs may also contribute to differences, and it does not give enough detail to reproduce the proprietary KMV mapping.
Key ideas
- KMV maps distance to default to expected default frequency using a proprietary historical default database.
- A normal probability derived from a structural Merton model need not match KMV's probability levels.
- Default risk rankings can be informative even when absolute probability calibration is weak.
- Differences in debt inputs and other modeling choices may also affect comparisons.
- The proprietary mapping prevents exact reproduction from the information provided.
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Full text
# KMV-Merton Probabilties of Default vs Moody's EDF # KMV-Merton Probabilties of Default vs Moody's EDF Moody's used to publish probability of default estimates from their Moody's EDF model, but they have temporarily discontinued it. I understand that the Moody's EDF model is closely based on the Merton model, so I coded a Merton model in Excel VBA to infer probability of default from equity prices, face value of debt and the risk-free rate for publicly traded companies. However, the probabilities of default that I get from the Merton model are drastically different from the Moody's EDF model. Generally they're extremely high or extremely low and the ranking of the same firms is totally different. I understand that Moody's uses an empirical distribution while Merton uses a normal distribution in order to calculate these probabilities - is this the only source of the discrepancy? If I want to accurately reproduce Moody's EDF probabilities of default, what approach should I use? Since I can't reproduce their empirical distribution, is this pointless? I'd be happy to post my code if anybody is interested. ## Answer by AfterWorkGuinness (score 5) https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/20996 > I understand that Moody's uses an empirical distribution while KMV uses a normal distribution in order to calculate these probabilities KMV doesn't use a normal distribution to map distance to default to a probability of default (EDF in the KMV model). It uses a proprietary database. > By a strict structural interpretation, $EDF$, the expected default frequency, meaning the probability of observing the firm to default within one year, ought to equal the normal probability $EDF_t=N(DD_t)$. KMV, however, breaks the model at this point, and instead relies on its large database of historical defaults to map $DD$ to $EDF$ by a proprietary function $EDF = f(DD)$. Source: https://www.fields.utoronto.ca/programs/scientific/09-10/finance/courses/hurdnotes2.pdf ## Answer by Benjamin Christoffersen (score 0) https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/39497 > If I want to accurately reproduce Moody's EDF probabilities of default, what approach should I use? You may find > Sreedhar T. Bharath, Tyler Shumway; Forecasting Default with the Merton Distance to Default Model, The Review of Financial Studies, Volume 21, Issue 3, 1 May 2008, Pages 1339–1369, https://doi.org/10.1093/rfs/hhn044 interesting. They do what you describe to some length. See particularly page 1354. They find a high rank correlation which makes this observation you make odd > ... the ranking of the same firms is totally different. Though, their sample size is only 80. The nominal default probability levels are though rather off which is the reason that they use a Cox model. > ... is this the only source of the discrepancy? As far as I know, then maybe. Other differences you get may be due to what they use as e.g., the debt.
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