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Zero-Coupon Bond Pricing PDE and Feynman–Kac Representation

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Richard

Summary

The document explains how to connect a zero-coupon bond’s price to the stochastic process for the short rate. If the rate follows an Itô diffusion under the risk-neutral measure, applying Feynman–Kac gives a pricing PDE with a terminal condition equal to one. The bond price is represented as the conditional expectation of the future discount factor, discounted by the accumulated short rate.

The explanation emphasizes that the bond’s price process does not need to be modeled as a standalone Brownian motion with drift and diffusion to derive this PDE; the rate process supplies the stochastic dynamics. The result is conditional on specifying the short-rate dynamics under the pricing measure. The question’s proposed deterministic interest-accrual process alone does not establish those dynamics or justify a risk-neutral expectation.

Key ideas

  • The short rate’s diffusion determines the spatial derivative terms in the bond pricing PDE.
  • The terminal condition for a zero-coupon bond is one at maturity.
  • Feynman–Kac represents the bond price as a conditional expectation of accumulated short-rate discounting under the risk-neutral measure.
  • The pricing representation and PDE imply each other when the stated regularity and model assumptions hold.

Tags

Full text
# Provide a bond pricing differential equation and invoke Feynman-Kac Theorem


# Provide a bond pricing differential equation and invoke Feynman-Kac Theorem












Grateful for any assistance.

Consider the process: $dZ=r(t)Z\,dt$ , where $r(t)$ is stochastic interest rate and $Z=Z(r,t;T)$ is a zero coupon bond Price. Provide a bond pricing partial differential equation and invoke Feynman-Kac Theorem to show the solution requires the risk neutral measure $\mathbb{Q}$:

$$ Z(r,t;T)=\mathbb{E_t^Q}\left[\exp\left({-\int^T_tr(s)\,ds} \right)\right]. $$

Everything I read suggests write the PDE associated with $Z(r,t;T)$, integrate it and then take the expected value. I am stuck however on the first step as $dZ$ does not look like the usual Brownian motion with drift and diffusion? Instead the process evolves like having money in the bank earning interest, i.e. the change in the value of the zero coupon bond ($dZ$) in a timestep ($dt$) is equivalent to earning interest at a rate $r(t)$ over time. Grateful for any guidance on how to approach this.

## Answer by user16891 (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/18958

The Feynman-Kac theorem can be used in both directions. That is,

- If we know that $r_t$ follows the Ito process as described by the following stochastic differential equation \begin{align} d{{r}_{t}}=\mu ({{r}_{t}},t)dt+\sigma ({{r}_{t}},t)d{{W}_{t}^{Q}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,(1) \end{align} and we are given a function $Z(r,t; T)$ with boundary condition $Z(r,T; T)=1$, then we can always obtain the solution for $Z(r,t; T)$ as Equation \begin{align} {{Z}_{t}}+\mu(r_t,t)\,{{Z}_{r}}\,+\frac{1}{2}{{\sigma }^{2}(r_t,t)} {{Z}_{rr}}-{{r(t)}}\,Z=0\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,(2) \end{align} and with boundary condition $Z(r,T; T)=1$ The theorem asserts that $Z(r,t; T)$ has the solution \begin{align} Z(r,t;T)={{E}^{Q}}\left[ exp\left(-\int_{t}^{T}r_s\,ds\right)\underbrace{Z(r,T;T)}_{1}\,\,|{\mathcal{F}_{t}} \right](3) \end{align}

- If we know that the solution to $Z(r,t; T)$ is given by equation $(3)$ and that $r_t$ follows the process in $(1)$ then we are assured that $Z(r,t; T)$ satisfies the PDE in Equation $(2)$.

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.