Zero-Covariance Portfolios and the Efficient Frontier
Summary
The document asks whether every mean-variance efficient portfolio has another efficient portfolio with zero correlation to it. The proposed construction combines a chosen portfolio with the minimum-variance portfolio, varying the combination weight to make the covariance with the original portfolio zero. Since portfolio standard deviations are positive, zero covariance implies zero correlation.
The crucial qualification is that this constructed portfolio lies on the frontier line but on the inefficient side, rather than on the efficient frontier. The argument relies on the chosen portfolio differing from the minimum-variance portfolio and on the geometry of two-portfolio combinations. Thus, the construction does not establish that a zero-correlation partner exists among efficient portfolios; it instead identifies an inefficient frontier portfolio with the desired covariance property.
Key ideas
- Combining a portfolio with the minimum-variance portfolio can produce zero covariance with the original.
- With positive standard deviations, zero covariance means zero correlation.
- The constructed portfolio lies on the inefficient side of the frontier.
- The argument excludes the minimum-variance portfolio as the starting portfolio.
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Full text
# For any efficient portfolio, does there exist another efficient portfolio which has zero correlation with it?
# For any efficient portfolio, does there exist another efficient portfolio which has zero correlation with it?
For any portfolio on mean-variance efficient frontier, does there exist a portfolio on the frontier which has zero correlation with it?
I tried to play around with the covariance, by setting correlation equal to zero and then showing that since s.d. are positive, the only way it can be zero is when covariance is zero. And from there, tried to prove that this exists (when the covariance between two portfolios are zero). But no success.
How to prove it?
## Answer by Mark Joshi (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/31706
Let the portfolio be $T.$ Suppose $T$ is not the minimal variance portfolio, $M.$
Consider $$ \theta T + (1-\theta) M $$ the covariance of this with $T$ is $$ \theta \operatorname{Var}(T) + (1-\theta ) \operatorname{Cov}(T,M). $$ By varying $\theta$ we can get zero (i.e. let $ \theta=\frac{\operatorname{Cov}(T,M)}{\operatorname{Cov}(T,M)-\operatorname{Var}(T)})$. This portfolio is a linear combination of frontier portfolios so it is a point on the frontier. Call it $Z.$ However, we still have to discuss which side of the frontier it is on, efficient (max return for a given risk) or inefficient (min return for a given risk). I will show that $Z$ is inefficient rather than efficient:
Note that $T$, $Z$ and $M$ all lie on a straight line in weight space.
By considering the minimal variance combination of $T$ and $Z$ which is $M$ we see that they must lie on different sides of $M$ since the weights in the formula for a minimal variance combination of two assets will be positive.
So $Z$ is on the inefficient frontier not the efficient one.
Note all this assumes $T \neq M.$ (Otherwise $\theta$ is not defined, due to division by zero).
(see my book on portfolio theory for more discussion.)Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.